Subject: Pseudo-Jahn-Teller effect

From: Anton van Oosten <[email-masked]>
Date: Wed, 16 Mar 94 14:16:06 +0100

Hi. I regularly encounter the 'pseudo-Jahn-Teller effect' as 
an explanation for symmetry lowering when the Jahn-Teller 
theorem does not apply. What is the theorical basis of this 
term ? Or does it only state what did *not* cause the 
phenomenon ?

Any comments or literature references are welcome !

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Anton Van Oosten
University of Linkoeping     Internet: [email-masked]
IFM/FOA, FOA-huset           Phone:    +46  13 282380
S-581 83 LINKOEPING SWEDEN   Fax:      +46  13 142337       
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