Subject: Perturbation / Variational

From: "A. Boufarik" <aboufer2000(at)yahoo.ca>
Date: Thu, 4 Nov 2004 18:17:50 -0500 (EST)

Greetings all,
 
[1] Suppose that a Hartree-Fock wavefunction W_tot is obtained for some Hamiltonian H_tot = H_0 + H_1 where H_1 is a "small" perturbation. 
 
[2] Assuming that I can get the wavefunction W_0 from H_0.
 
Can I safely assume that the first order correction can be calculated as
W_(1) = W_tot - W_0 ?
 
References, suggestions, comments, ... are welcome

Boufarik 

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