*From*: "A. Boufarik" <aboufer2000(at)yahoo.ca>*Subject*: Perturbation / Variational*Date*: Thu, 4 Nov 2004 18:17:50 -0500 (EST)

Greetings all,

[1] Suppose that a Hartree-Fock wavefunction W_tot is obtained for some
Hamiltonian H_tot = H_0 + H_1 where H_1 is a "small" perturbation.

[2] Assuming that I can get the wavefunction W_0 from H_0.

Can I safely assume that the first order correction can be calculated
as

W_(1) = W_tot - W_0 ?

References, suggestions, comments, ... are welcome

Boufarik

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