<Please forgive the length of this
one> I think the analogy of the trajectory of a Newtonian
object’s
motion is useful, albeit imprecise. The problem with a lot of the comments that have been posted
since that analogy was suggested is that a lot of people are still confusing
the “observation of the ball as it moves through its trajectory”
with “observation of the trajectory”. It is indeed impossible
to observe a trajectory, but common experience proves that it is possible to
observe a ball in flight, and to deduce from this the notion of its
trajectory. A trajectory is an abstract conception that links a
ball’s
position at time “t” with its position at time “t +
.delta.t”.
Note that if we as humans were not capable of perceiving time as having
sequence, the notion of a trajectory would be meaningless to
us. I have been reading “ “The name of the song is called "HADDOCKS'
EYES."' `Oh, that's the name of the song, is it?' `No, you don't understand,' the Knight said, looking a
little vexed. `That's what the name is CALLED. The name really IS "THE
AGED AGED MAN."' `Then I ought to have said "That's what the SONG is
called"?' `No, you oughtn't: that's quite another thing! The SONG is
called "WAYS AND MEANS": but that's only what it's CALLED, you know!'
`Well, what IS the song, then?' said Alice, who was by this
time completely bewildered.” What does this have to do with orbitals? Well, we can
certainly observe a cloud of electrons, at least indirectly. I am less
sure that we can observe a single electron out of this cloud, but for the sake
of argument let’s just say that we (or Villeneuve et al) can. If we
then observe that this electron is detectable in some places but not in others
(within the limits of our ability to see electrons), can we then say we have
“observed
an orbital”? Well, no we cannot. However, we can certainly deduce
that something orbital-like might exist, just as we can deduce the existence of
a trajectory. Is the similarity of Villeneuve et al’s electron
distribution to a Hartree-Fock orbital purely coincidence? Well, again
this question depends on how one understands the word
“coincidence”.
It is entirely possible for the observation and the model to
“coincide”
purely by chance, with absolutely no logical or causative connection –
this is what some people posting on this list are using coincidence to
mean. On the other hand, it is also possible, as I maintained in
my first posting on this subject, that our theory has captured some
“real”
aspect of electronic behaviour, despite its obvious inaccuracies and
imprecisions. Is this coincidence in the sense that there is absolutely
no logical or causative relationship? I don’t think that it
necessarily is. After all, our theory is based on spectroscopic
measurements leading to energies, and it is also based on some understanding of
particle physics. Is it impossible that maybe some part of orbital-based
quantum theory “got it (partly) right”? I hope
not. Dr. Philip G. Hultin Associate Professor of
Chemistry, R3T 2N2 http://umanitoba.ca/chemistry/people/hultin |